the answer is yes. here is how:
circumference of a circle is 2pi*r
perimeter of a square is 4a, a being the length of each side.
when 2pi*r=4a, r=(2a)/pi
area of the circle is pi*r^2=pi(2a/pi)^2=(4/pi)*a^2
area of the square is a^2
Because 4/pi is bigger than 1, (4/pi)*a^2 is always larger than a^2
